http://www.alderac.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=41206
I'm sorry if you think this post is rules lawyer or whatnot, but this is the forum for rules lawyering questions.
I don't understand how playing Favor to the Hoard at a battle where you don't have any tacticians, by using a tactician somewhere's use of tactician, is relevant to the battle. It doesn't affect any cards in the battle, and it doesn't come from or is performed by any cards in the battle. I understand how presence is satisfied, but not relevance. Could you clear this up for me?